Q1. Industrial Relation refer to : Ans. a) Central Government and State Government relations. b) Employer, Employees and Government relationship. c) management and Customers relationship. d) Government and Public relations. Q2. Who is known as ‘safety valve’ in the field of industrial relations ? Q3. Which one of the following cannot be included under the purview of industrial relations? Ans. a) Relations between trade unions and trade unions b) Relations between employers and trade unions c) Relations between employers and customers d) Relations between state, employer and trade unions Q4. Absence of strikes and lock-outs is an indicator of: Ans. a) Peaceful industrial relations. b) Friendly industrial relations c) Disturbed industrial relations Q5. The Government’s strategy in maintaining industrial relations in India is: c) Required intervention. Q6. Bipartite industrial relations include relations between: Ans. a) Management and unions. c) Management & Government d) Management, Government & Union Q7. Which of the following machinery cannot be said to be bipartite machinery in the field of industrial relations? b) Joint Management Council Q8. Which of the following cannot be said to be tripartite machinery in the field of industrial relations? Ans. a) Indian Labour Conference b) Standing Labour Committee c) International Labour Organisation Q9. Which of the following is said to be an important aspect of industrial relations? Ans. a) Profit and loss of the organisation b) Future expansion programme c) Conflict and co-operation. Q10. Which of the following ministries looks after industrial relations situation in the country? Ans. a) Ministry of Home Affairs b) Ministry of Human Resource Development d) Ministry of Labour and employment. Q11. Which one of the following international organisations is directly related to industrial relations? Ans. a) United Nations Organisation c) World Health Organisation d) International Labour Organisation. Q12. Which of the following areas cannot be directly included in the field of industrial relations? Ans. a) Trade Union Recognition c) Minimum wages, Fair wages and Living wages. Q13. Which of the following legislations cannot be included in the category of industrial relations legislations in India? Ans. a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 c) Industrial Employment (Standing orders)Act, 1946. d) Equal Remuneration Act. 1976 Q14. Which of the following is not included under industrial relations policy of a country? Ans. a) Recognition of trade unions and collective bargaining. b) Restrictions on strikes and lock-outs. c) Workers participation in management d) Principles of wages determination. Q15. Which of the following regulates industrial relations in India? Ans. a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and Trade Unions Act, 1926. b) Industrial Employment (Standing orders) Act, 1946 c) Code of Discipline and Inter-union Code of Conduct Q16. Peaceful industrial relations denote: Ans. a) Absence of strike and lock out b) Emphasis on bipartitism. c) Co-operation between the parties Q17. The history of industrial disputes in India started after : Q18. Which of the following methods is more prominent in settling industrial disputes in India? Ans. a) Voluntary Arbitration Q19. Which of the following methods has not been given a statutory form in India? Q20. Voluntary Arbitration means: Ans. a) Giving an award by a third person mutually agreed upon by both the parties. b) Giving an award by person appointed by the appropriate government without the consent of the parties. c) An award of Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal. Q21. Compulsory Arbitration means: Ans. a) Reference of the dispute by an appropriate government to an arbitrator appointed by the appropriate government. b) Reference of the dispute by the appropriate government to an arbitrator mutually agreed upon by the parties. c) Taking the dispute to a third person by the parties. Q22. Conciliation is a method in which a third person: Ans. a) Mediates in and persuades the parties to come to an amicable settlement. b) Listens to both the parties and gives his own decision. c) Gives his decision without listening to the parties. Q23. The history of conciliation started in India from: Ans. a) The Employers and Workmen (Disputes) Act, 1980. b) The Trade (Disputes) Act, 1929. c) The Defence of India Rules, 1940. d) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. Q24. Collective Bargaining in India has been used as a method of settlement of industrial disputes under: Ans. a) the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. b) The Code of Discipline in Industry. c) Inter-Union Code of Conduct. Q25. Disputes of rights arise when workers are deprived of a right conferred to them through: Ans. a) The constitution India. c) Standing orders, awards, settlement and agreements. Q26. Disputes of interest refer to those disputes which arise because the workers want to: Ans. a) Create some new rights. b) Get some new privilege. c) Obtain some new concessions. Q27. The Court of Inquiry under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 will conclude its proceeding within a period of : Q28. A board of conciliation under the industrial disputes act, 1947 may consist of : c) Three or five persons. Q29. The appropriate government may appoint one or more industrial tribunals for adjudication of industrial disputes relating to any matter, whether specified in : Ans. a) The second Schedule. c) Second or third schedule. Q30. Section 22 and 23 of the industrial disputes act, 1947 are related to Ans. a) lay-off and Retrenchment. b) Strikes and lock-outs. Q31. The industrial disputes act in India was passed in : Q32. Works-committee is a: c) Adjudication machinery. d) Wage fixing machinery. Q33. The conciliation officer generally concludes his proceeding within: Q34. Which of the following methods is not incorporated under the industrial disputes act, 1947. Ans. a) Collective bargaining. Q35. Till what period from the conclusion of adjudication proceedings a workman cannot go on strike under the industrial disputes act’ 1947 Q36. The main function of an arbitrator is: Ans. a) To conciliate all industrial disputes. b) To induce the parties to come to an amicable settlement. c) To adjudicate industrial disputes. Q37. According to Mahatama Gandhi which one is the best method for settlement of industrial disputes? d) Voluntary Arbitration. Q38. Industrial disputes may take place due to : c) Trade Union Recognition. Q39. Which one of the following cannot be said to be an industrial dispute? Ans. a) Disputes between employer and employer. b) Disputes between employer and workmen. c) Disputes between workmen & workmen. d) Disputes between employer and the customer. Q40. Which one of the following machineries cannot be said to be machinery for settling industrial disputes? Q41. Among the methods for settlement for industrial disputes listed below, which one is not relevant here? Ans. a) Collective Bargaining. b) Compulsory Adjudication. c) Voluntary Arbitration d) Reference to civil court. Q42. According to the industrial disputes act, 1947 which of the following matters does not fall within the jurisdiction of labour court? Ans. a) Application and interpretation of standing orders. b) Discharge or dismissal of workmen. c) Illegality or otherwise of a strike or lockout. d) Wage including the period and mode of payment. Q43. According to the industrial disputes act, 1947 wage includes: Ans. a) Any Traveling Concession. d) Employer’s contribution to provident fund. Q44. Under the industrial disputes act, 1947 which one of the following does not come under unfair labour practices? Ans. a) Employer’s refusal to conduct secret ballot elections for union recognition. c) Employer preventing a worker from joining a union. d) Workers causing damage to the property of the employer. Q45. Which of the following authorities does not use conciliation as the method of settlement of industrial dispute? Ans. a) Conciliation Officer. c) Board of Conciliation. Q46. Which one of the following is the last weapon in the hands of workers: Ans. a) Lay-off. b) Lock-out. Q47. Which one of the following is not an important element of strike: Ans. a) Cessation of work. c) Under a common understanding. Q48. A lightening strike denotes: Ans. a) Going on strike after serving a notice of strike. b) Going on strike after obtaining strike ballot. c) Going on strike after making all necessary preparation d) Going on strike suddenly. Q50. A lockout in an industry is declared by: Ans. a) Union Government. Q51. In a situation to be called as strike, which of the following must be present? Ans. a) Plurality of workmen. b) Cessation of work or refusal to continue to work. c) Acting in combination or concerted action under a common understanding. Q52. Wild cat strike means: Ans. a) A strike declared suddenly and without prior notice. b) Workers resorting to violence during the strike. c) A strike declared with the prior notice. d) Standing demonstration at the gate of organisation. Q53. A temporary closing of employment due to industrial dispute or the suspension of work or the refusal by an employer to continue to employ any number of persons engaged by him would mean that : Ans. a) The industrial establishment is close down. b) The industrial establishment is locked out. c) the workmen of the industrial establishment are kept under suspension. Q54. In India, the ‘right to strike’ is: Ans. a) A Fundamental Right. b) Conferred by legislation. c) Provided under the directive Principal of state policy. d) Conferred of Government order. Q55. As per the industrial disputes act, 1947 strikes and lockouts in public utility services will be legal only when : Ans. a) A written notice of strikes or lock out is given within six weeks of strike or lockout. b) Not resorting to strikes or lockouts within 14 days or giving such a notice. c) During the pendency of any conciliation proceedings before a Conciliation Officer and 07 days after the conclusion of such proceeding. Q56. Which of the following statements is not correct. Ans. a) The notice of lockout or strike shall not be necessary where there is already in existence a strike or as may be in case of lockout in public utility service. b) A Lockout declared in consequence of an illegal strike shall not be deemed to be illegal. c) A Lockout declared in consequence of an illegal lockout shall not be deemed to be illegal. d) A strike or lockout may be declared even before the date mentioned in the notice. Q57. Which of the following statements is not correct Ans. a) There is no need of giving strike notice in non-public utility service under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. b) According to the Code of Discipline there should be no strike or lockout without notice. c) No strikes or lockouts in a non-public utility service can be declared during the pendency of conciliation proceeding before a Conciliation officer. d) No strike or lock-out can be declared in a non –public utility service during the pendency or proceedings before a Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal. Q58. A strike in pursuance of an industrial dispute has already commenced and is in existence. The appropriate Govt. has referred the dispute to a Labour Court but did not prohibit the continuance of the strike under sub-section (3) of the section10. The continuance of that strike during the pendency of proceedings before the Labour Court will be: c) Out of the preview of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. Q59. Workers in a public utility service went on an illegal strike without giving any notice. Soon thereafter, the employer also, without giving any notice declared a lockout. Will that lockout be Ans. a) Legal. b) Illegal. c) Out of the preview of this Act. d) None of the above. Q60. A trade union in a steel factory served a notice of strike on 1st January but the union went on strike in the middle of May. Will the strike be : c) Does not come under the preview of this Act. Q61. An award was given on the subject of Bonus three months back and it is still in operation. The union decides to go on strike on the issue of revision of wages in that organisation will that strike be : c) Will not come under the preview of this Act. Q62. General provisions regarding lay-off are given in the industrial disputes act, 1947 in its : Q63. The general provisions regarding lay-off apply to : Ans. a) Industrial establishments in which atleast 50 workmen are employed and which are not of a seasonal character. b) Industrial establishments in which atleast 100 workmen are employed. c) Industrial establishments which are not of seasonal character. d) To all industrial establishments which come under the purview of the Factories Act, 1948. Q64. The period of one year of continuous service under the industrial Disputes Act, 1947 means? Ans. a) An uninterrupted service of the all 365 days. b) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days. c) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days. d) 240 days service in a year. Q65. Whenever a workman is laid-off under the industrial disputes act, 1947, the employer will pay him lay-off compensation which will be equivalent to: Ans. a) 50% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance. b) 75% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance. c) 80% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance. d) 100% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance. Q66. In which of the following situations lay-off compensation shall not be paid to a workman : Ans. a) If he refuses to accept any alternative employment in the same establishment. b) If he does not present himself at work place atleast once a day. c) If such laying off is due to strike or showing down of production. d) In all the above situations. Q67. In an industrial establishment where the special provisions regarding lay-off apply, no workman shall be laid-off by his employer except. Ans. a) With the prior permission of appropriate government. b) A notice in advance is given to the workmen 03 months before declaring the lay off. c) Without the consent of the trade union. Q68. Prior permission of the appropriate government shall not be necessary in lay-off if: Ans. a) Such lay off is due to shortage of power. b) Due to natural calamity. c) In case of mine due to fire, flood, excess of inflammable gas or explosion. Q69. Who among the following is not entitled to lay-off compensation under the industrial disputes act, 1947? Ans. a) A permanent worker. Q70. Every workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of an industrial establishment and who presents himself for work at the establishment shall be deemed to be laid-off if the employer does not provide him work : Ans. a) Within 2 hours of his so presenting. b) Within 4 hours of his so presenting. c) Within 6 hours of his so presenting. Q71. A lay-off is declared is case of : b) When worker threaten to go on strike.. c) Failure of power or shortage of raw materials. d) The employer is running in heavy loss. Q72. The maximum period for which workmen can be laid-off during any period of twelve months under the industrial disputes act, 1947? Q73. Inability to give employment to a workman on accounts of shortage of coal, power or raw materials or the accumulation of stock or the break down of machinery is called: d) Termination of employment. Q74. An organisation employing less than 100 workers, can not retrench the services of an employee who has put in atleast: Ans. a) Five year of continuous service. ) Three year of continuous service. ) Two year of continuous service. ) One year of continuous service. Q75. Retrenchment in organisations employing less than 100 workers can be done only when: Ans. a) The workmen has been given atleast one month notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment or wages in lieu of notice. b) The workmen has been paid retrenchment compensation. c) A notice served on the appropriate government. Q76. There will be no need of notice of retrenchment if: Ans. a) The worker has committed a minor misconduct. b) If he is a trade union member. c) If he has not completed his one year of continuous service. d) If he has disobeyed the management. Q77. The retrenchment compensation will be equivalent to: Ans. a) 25 days average pay for every completed year of continuous service. b) 20 days average pay for every completed year of continuous service. c) 15 days average pay for every completed year of continuous service. d) 10 days average pay for every completed year of continuous service. Q78. Organisations employing 100 or more workmen will be required to give a notice for retrenching an employee which should be: Ans. a) 3 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment. b) 2 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment. c) One months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment. Q79. The appropriate government either on its own or on the application made by the employer or any workman may review its order granting or refusing permission for retrenchment. If the appropriate government refers this matter to a tribunal for adjudication, the tribunal in such a situation will submit its award within a period of: Ans. a) 90 days. b) 60 days. c) 30 days. d) No time of limit. Q80. According to the industrial disputes act, 1947, the employer wil normally retrench : Ans. a) The senior most worker of that category. b) An inefficient worker of that category. c) Any worker of that category. d) The last person to be employed in that category. Q81. Where any workman has been retrenched in an organisation and the employer proposes to make further employment in the same category, the industrial disputes act say that the: Ans. a) Retrenched workers will not be re-employed again. b) Only fresh workers will be taken into employment. c) Retrenched workers will have preference over other workmen if they offer for re-employment. Q82. Termination of the services of surplus employees from any organisation is called: Ans. a) Disciplinary action. Q83. Termination by the employer of the service of a workman for any reason whatsoever otherwise than as a punishment is known as : Q84. An employer of an establishment serves a three months notice on the workmen to be retrenched. The statement above indicates that the establishment employs: b) More than 50 but less than 100 workmen. Q85. The provision of “Protected Workmen” deals with protecting the union officials of Ans. a) The recognized union only. b) All the union in the establishment whether registered or not. c) The union (S) selected as per the discretion of the employer. d) The registered trade unions functioning in an establishment. Q86. The “Protected Workmen” refer to: Ans. a) Any member of a registered trade union in the establishment. b) A workman who is a member of executive. c) A workman who is an office bearer. d) A workman who is either a member of executive or office bearer of a registered trade union connected with the establishment. Q87. An employer during the pendency of any proceeding in respect of an industrial dispute: Ans. a) Can take any action against any protected workman. b) Can not take any action against a protected workman. c) Can take any action against a protected workman only after obtaining permission in writing from the authority before which the proceeding is pending. Q88. In every establishment the number of workmen to be recognized as “Protected workmen” for the purposes of this act shall be: Ans. a) One percent of the total workmen. b) Two percent of the total workmen. c) Five percent of the total workmen. Q89. The minimum number of persons to be declared as protected workmen in any organisation shall be not less than: Q90. The maximum number of persons to be declared as “Protected workmen” in any organisation should not be more than: Q91. The provisions regarding closure have been given under: Ans. a) Trade union Act, 1926. b) Industrial disputes act, 1947. c) Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1948. Q92. Any employer employing 100 or more workers and who intends to close down his undertaking will have to give a notice to the appropriate government stating the reasons of closure. Ans. a) Atleast 30 days before the date of closure. b) Atleast 60 days before the date of closure. c) Atleast 90 days before the date of closure d) Atleast 120 days before the date of closure. Q93. No notice of closure will be required to be served on the appropriate government if the number of workers employed is: Q94. No notice of closure will be required to be given to the appropriate government indicating the reasons if the undertaking is set-up for the construction of: Q95. If the appropriate government is so satisfied it may direct that the provisions of closure shall not apply to an undertaking if it is closed due to : Ans. a) Exceptional circumstances as accident in the undertaking or death of the employer. b) Exceptional loss to the employer. c) Strong unionism among the workers. d) Insufficient demand for the product. Q96. Where an undertaking is closed down for any reason whatsoever, every workman shall be entitled to notice and compensation if he has put in: Ans. a) Five year of continuous service. b) Two year of continuous service. c) One year of continuous service. d) Six months of continuous service. Q97. For closing down the place of employment the employer will have to serve: Ans. a) One month notice in advance. c) Compensation at the rate of 15 days wages for every completed year of service. Q98. Where an undertaking engaged in mining operation is closed down by reason merely of exhaustion of the minerals in that area, no workman shall be entitled to any notice or compensation if: Ans. a) The employer provides the workmen alterative employment with effect from date of closure. b) On the same terms & conditions of service as were applicable. c) The service of workman has not interrupted by the alternative employment. Q99. Closure as defined under the industrial disputes act, 1947 means: Ans. a) Permanent closing of the entire organisation. b) Permanent closing of a major portion of the organisation. c) Permanent closing of even a part of the organisation. Q100. How many days before, an employer intending to close down his undertaking in which 62 workmen are employed, has to serve a notice to the appropriate government: Ans. a) Closing down the place of work for a short period. b) Closing down the place of employment permanently. c) Suspension of work due to shortage of raw materials. d) Refusal to give employment due to industrial disputes. Q102. An interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute by any Labour Court is known as: Q103. Award means an interim or final determination of any industrial dispute by: b) Industrial Tribunal or National Tribunal. c) An Arbitrator under section 10A. Q104. An Award must be published by the appropriate government in the official gazette within: Ans: a) 15 days from date of the receipt. b) 30 days from date of the receipt. c) 45 days from date of the receipt. d) 60 days from date of the receipt. Q105. An award shall become enforceable on the expiry of: Ans. a) 15 days from the date of publication. b) 30 days from the date of publication. c) 60 days from the date of publication. d) 90 days from the date of publication. Q106. An award under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: Ans. a) Shall not be final. b) Shall not be compulsory in nature. c) May be questioned in any Court of Law. d) Shall be final and shall not be called in question by any Court. Q107. An award will remain in operation for a minimum period of: Ans. a) 06 months from the date on which it becomes enforceable. b) One year from the date on which it becomes enforceable. c) Two year from the date on which it becomes enforceable. d) Three year from the date on which it becomes enforceable Q108. The appropriate government may extend the period operation of an award by any period not exceeding? Ans. a) 06 months at a time. Q109. The total period of operation of an award should not exceed? Q110. Where an appropriate government is of opinion that on public grounds affecting national economy or social justice: Ans. a) It may stop the enforcement of the entire award. b) It may stop the enforcement of a part of the award. c) It may modify the award. Q111. On the completion of the period of operation: Ans. a) An award is automatically terminated. b) An award is automatically extended. c) A notice is to be given by any of the partly for the termination of the award. Q112. The award shall continue to be binding even after serving a notice by any of the partly until: Ans. a) A period of 30 days have lapsed from the date on which notice given. b) A period of two months have lapsed from the date on which notice given c) A period of three months have lapsed from the date on which notice given d) A period of six months have lapsed from the date on which notice given Q113. A settlement means: Ans. a) A settlement arrived at by the help of a Conciliation Officer. b) A settlement arrived at by the help of a Board of Conciliation. c) An agreement arrived at otherwise than in the course of Conciliation proceeding but registered with the Conciliation Officer. Q114. A settlement will remain in operation for a minimum period of: Q115. A settlement will remain in operation for a: Ans. a) Maximum period of one year. b) Maximum period of two year. c) Maximum period of three year. d) No maximum period has been mentioned under the Act. Q116. A settlement after the completion of the period of its operation is: Ans. a) Automatically terminated. b) Automatically extended. c) One of the parties has to give a notice in writing to the other expressing its intention to terminate the settlement. Q117. Which of the following Schedules under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 contains provisions regarding unfair labour practice? Ans. a) The First Schedule. c) The Third & Fourth Schedule. Q118. Which of the following is not an unfair labour practice on the part of Employers and Trade Unions of Employers? Ans. a) To interfere with restrain from, or coerce workmen in the exercise of their right to organise. b) To dominate, interfere with or contribute, support, financial or otherwise to any trade union. c) To establish employer-sponsored trade unions of workmen. d) To submit list of workmen for recognition as protected workmen to the appropriate government. Q119. Which of the following are unfair labour practices on the part of employer? Ans. a) To recruit workmen during a strike which is not an illegal strike. b) failure to implement award, settlement or agreement. c) Refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the recognized trade unions. Q120. Which of the following are unfair labour practices on the part of workmen and their trade unions? Ans. a) To advised or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal under this Act. b) To coerce workmen in the exercise of their right to self organisation or to join a trade union or refrain from joining any trade union. c) For a recognized union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer. Q121. Which of the following is not an unfair labour practice on the part of workmen and their trade unions? Ans. a) Indulge in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative. b) To stage demonstrations at the residences of the employers or the managerial staff members. c) To stage, encourage or instigate such from of coercive action with willful “go slow” squatting on the work premises after working hours or “gherao” of any of the members of the managerial or other staff. d) to nominate an outsider to a Join Level Council as workers’ representative. Q122. Which of the following can be said to be an unfair labour practice on the part of an employers? Ans. a) not to call regular meetings of Works Committee. b) To transfer a workmen malafide from the one place to another under the guise of following management policy. c) Not to implement the decisions of the Join Management Council. d) To refuse to pay bonus more than the maximum prescribed under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965. Q123. Industrial actions mean strategies or methods used during: Ans. a) Labour Management Co-operation. b) Workers’ Participation in Management. Q124. Which of the following is known as industrial action? Ans. a) Strike & Lock-out. b) Picketing. c) Go-slow. d) All the above. Q125. Which of the following industrial actions have been permitted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 with certain restriction? Ans. a) Strike & Lock-outs. Q126. Which of the following industrial actions have been declared as unfair labour practices under Fifth Schedule under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 in India? b) Acts of force or violence. c) To indulge in coercive activities, go slow, gherao. Q127. Which of the following industrial actions was declared as a cognizable offence liable with imprisonment and fine by the Calcutta High Court in 1967? Q129. In which of the following case in India “Gherao” was declared illegal by Calcutta High Court in September 1967? Ans. a) Jay Engineering works Vs. State of West Bengal. b) Dalmia cement ltd. vs. naraindas anand ji c) Titagarh paper mills vs. paper mills employees union d) Damodar ganesh Vs. state Ans. a) To stop production altogether b) To postpone production for some time c) Slowing down the speed of production. Q131. Which of the following industrial actions are mostly adopted by the white collar employees? Ans. a) Strike b) Picketing c) Go-slow and work-to-rule. d) None of the above Q132. Which industrial action is associated with the name of Mahatama Gandhi ? Ans. a) Picketing. b) Lock-off. c) Satyagrah. d) Work-to-rule. Q133. Which industrial action is rarely used in India? Ans. a) Picketing. b) Go-slow. c) Boy-cott. d) Work-to-rule. Q134. Which of the following industrial actions has been recognized as lawful and permitted under the Act? Ans. a) Strikes and lockouts. b) Picketing Q135. The method of collective bargaining refers to: Ans. a) Negotiations between Employer, workers and Government Representative. b) Negotiations between Employer’s representative and Trade union’s Representative. c) Negotiations between Employers and the Government. d) Negotiations between Employer, and Custmers. Q136. Who has first made use of the term Collective Bargaining? Q137. Which of the following is helpful in the process of collective bargaining? Ans. a) Conciliation and Mediation. b) Voluntary Arbitration. Q138. If representatives of an employer and trade union meet together and discuss the terms and conditions of employment with a view to reaching and agreement, the process is called : Ans. a) Collective Bargaining. c) Worker’s Publication and Management Q139. An agreement arrived at by the parties and approved by a Labour Court or Tribunal is called: Q140. Which of the following weakens collective bargaining? Ans. a. Inter-union rivalries b. Absence of a collective bargaining legislation c. Hostility among the parties Q141. According to V.V.Giri, which one is the best method for the settlement of industrial disputes? Ans. a) Conciliation. b) Mediation. c) Adjudication. d) Collective Bargaining. Q142. When a dispute is settled by the process of collective bargaining, the document arrived a, is called : Ans. a) Settlement. b) Agreement Q143. When an agreement is arrived at in the process of collective bargaining and is registered with the conciliation officer, it is called: Q144. The definition of collective bargaining that it is “negotiations about working conditions and terms of employment between an employer, a group of employers or one or more employers organisations on the one hand, and one or more representative workers organisations on the other, with a view to reaching agreement” was given by : b) Sidney & Beatrice Webbs. c) International Labour Organisation Q145. Which of the following is not a subject matter for collective bargaining? Ans. a) Wage & allowances. b) Hours of work and dearness allowance. d) Labour management co-operation. Q146. Which of the following machineries in India, can be said to be a forum of collective bargaining? Ans. a) Joint management Council. b) Indian labour Conference. d) Tripartite wage boards. Q147. Which of the following representatives are not included in the process of collective bargaining? Ans. a) Employers’ representatives. b) Workers’ representatives. c) Government Representatives. Q148. Which of the following is not a purpose of collective bargaining? Ans. a) Settlement of industrial disputes. b) Determination of terms and conditions of employment. c) Waste minimization and pollution control. Q149. Which of the following recommended for the first time establishment of a tripartite body in India : b) The royal commission on labour in India. c) The Labour Investigation Committee. Q150. Tripartite bodies means bodies consisting of representatives of: Ans. a) Labour, Employers and Govt. b) Employers, Consumers and Government. c) Labour, General Public and Employers. Q151. Who presided over the first meeting of the Tripartite Labour Conference: Ans. a) Shri Rama Swami Mudliar. Q152. The Indian Labour Conference meets once: Ans. a) Every Six months. Q153. Who presided over the first Session of the Conference of Labour Ministers held in New Delhi on 23-23 January, 1940? Q154. Trusteeship theory essentially implies: Ans. a) The employer shall take decisions in the best interest of labour as the letter is immature. b) The employer shall consult labour before taking decisions as the letter is mature. c) The employer is the sole proprietor of his wealth. d) The capital belongs to the society, the employer is only the trustee. Q155. Trade unions’ sole purpose is: a) To help management to raise employee productivity. b) To resole employer-employee conflict. d) To protect and promote workers’ interest. Q.156 Who said that “ A trade union is a continues association of wage earners for the purpose of maintaining of improving the conditions their working lives”? Ans. a) Dankert. b) Sidney & Beatrice Webbs. c) R.A. Hoxie. d) S.D. Punekar. Q.157 Which of the following is not type of Trade Union? d) World Federation of Trade Unions. Q.158 Which of the following is affiliated with the Indian National Congress? Q.159 Which of the following federations is affiliated with the World Federation of Trade Unions (WFTU) at the international level? Ans. a) Hind Mazdoor Sabha. b) Centre of Trade Union. c) All India Trade Union Congress. d) Bhartiya Mazdoor Sabha. Q.160 What was the total number of registered trade unions in India in the year 1994 as per the India Labour Year Book? Q.161 Which one of the following types of trade unions is mostly found in industrial organisations in India? Q.162 Which of the following factors is responsible for continuance of outside leadership in trade unions in India? a) The present provision regarding out side leadership in the Trade Unions Act, 1926. b) Lack of education among the workers. c) Outsiders as heavy weights. Q.163 Who among the following trade union leaders was once the Union Labour Minister in India? Q. 164 Who among the following is known as the pioneer of voluntarism in industrial relations in India. Q.165 Which one of the following is the oldest National Labour Federation? Ans. a) National Front of Trade Unions. b) national Labour organisation. c) Centre of Indian Trade Unions d) All India Trade Union Congress. Q.166 Who is considered as the pioneer of Trade Union Movement? Q.167 A trade union leader who later became the President of India was: Q.168 The method of check-off is used primarily in the interest of: Ans. a) Employer b) Government. c) Trade Union d) Federation. Q.169 Trade Unions in India suffer from problem of: Ans. a) Outside leadership. b) Multiplicity of unions Q.170 The first President of the All India Trade Union Congress. Ans. a) Subhash Chandra Bose. Q.171 Who among the following can be said to be the first labour leader of India. Q.172 Which one of the following was the first trade union organised in India? Ans. a) The Kamgar Hitvardhak Sabha. b) The Bombay Postal Union. c) The printers’ Union, Calcutta. d) Bombay Mill Hands Association. Q.173 Which one of the following can be said to be the first modern trade union in India. Ans. a) All India Trade Union Congress. b) Textlite Labour Association. Q.174 Which of the following was organised primarily to send labour representative to I.L.O.? Ans. a) Madras Labour Union. b) Bombay Mill Hands’ Association. c) Textile Labour Association. d) All India Trade Union Congress. Q.175 The first general Secretary of the AITUC was: b) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel. Q.176 The 1st of May was celebrated as Labour Day for the first time in Bombay in: Payment of Wages Act, 1936 Q. 177 Fro which of the following purpose the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 was enacted? Ans. a) To fix minimum rates of wages in sweated industries. b) To ensure payment of equal remuneration to both male and female workers for similar work. c) To regulate payment of wages. Q.178 The payment of Wages Act, 1936 dose not apply to workers whose wages exceed? Ans. a) Rs. 400 per month Q.179 Who among the following will be responsible for the payment of wages to workers under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936? b) The manager of the factory c) The person responsible to the employer for the supervision and control of the Industrial establishment. Q.180 The payment of the Wages Act was enacted in: Q.181 No wages period fixed under the Payment of wages Act, 1936 shall exceed: Q.182 The payment of Wages Act, 1936 was passed on the recommendations of: Ans. a) The Fair Wages Committee. c) The Royal Commission on Labour. d) The National Commission on Labour. Q.183 According to the payment of Wages Act, 1936, the establishments where 1000 or more workers are employed, wages must be paid before the expiry of: Ans. a) Seventh day from completion of the wages period b) Eight day from the completion of the wages period c) Ninth day from the completion of the wages period d) Tenth day from the completion of the wages period Q.184 Which of the following deduction are not authorised under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936? Ans. a) Contribution paid under the E.S.I. Act, 1948. b) Contribution paid under the Provident Fund Act, 1952. c) Deductions towards Income-Tax. d) Deduction of Payment of compensation to the worker’s family on account of his death. Q.185 The payment of Wages Act, 1936 came in to force on: Q.186 The total amount of deduction including deductions for payments to co-operative societies under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 should not exceed: Ans. a) 50 percent. b) 65 percent. c) 75 percent. d) 80 percent. Q. 187 In a factory employing less than 1000 workers, the wages of every person employed therein shall be paid: Ans. a) Before the expiry of pay day. b) Before the expiry of the fifth day. c) Before the expiry of the seventh day. d) Before the expiry of the tenth day. Q.188 Wages under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 can not be paid: d) By crediting in his Bank Accounts. Q. 189 Which of the following is authorised deduction under Payment of Wages Act, 1936? Ans. a) Contribution under the E.S.I. Act, 1948. b) Contribution under the Employees Provident Fund Act, 1952. c) Recovery of loan and advance. Q.190 Which of the following is not an authorised deduction under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936? Ans. a) Donation of Prime Minister’s Relief Fund. b) Payment of membership fee of a registered trade union. c) For purpose of shares in the share market. d) Payment of dues of a registered co-operative society. Q.191 According to the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, no fine shall be imposed by as employer on: b) A worker above 50 years of age. c) A person who is under the age of 15 years. d) An unconfirmed employee. Q.192 The Total amount of fine which may be imposed in any wage period on any employed person as per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, shall be spent only: b) 1% of the wages payable to him in respect of that wage-period. c) 3% of the wages payable to him in respect of that wage-period. d) 5% of the wages payable to him in respect of that wage-period. Q.193 The total amount of all deductions, in any wage period, from the wages of an employed person shall not exceed in cases where such deductions are not wholly or partly made for payments to co-operative societies. Q194. Workers who have some complain with regard to their delayed payment of wages or unauthorized deductions can register their claims before the prescribed authority. Ans. a) either themselves b) through a legal practitioner. c) Any official of registered trade union. Q195. Such complaints must be presented before the prescribed authority within: Q196. On which of the following principles of wages the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 is based: Ans. a) Living wage principle b) Fair wage principle c) Minimum wage principle d) All the above Q197. The minimum wages act, 1948 is applicable in: Ans. a) Large scale industries b) Small scale industries Q198. A scheduled employment under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 is one which: Ans. a) is not included under the schedule given in the Act. b) is included in the schedule given at the end of the Act. Q199. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 says that: Ans. a) Only Central Government can include any employment in the schedule. b) Any State Government can include any employment in the schedule. Q.200 Minimum wages may be fixed by an appropriate government: Ans. a) by Notification method Q201. The appropriate government may refrain from fixing minimum rates of wages in any scheduled employment in which the total number of workers employed in the whole of the state is less than: Q202. Where minimum wages are to be fixed by Notification method, the notice must be published by the appropriate government: Ans. a) in the daily newspaper of that state. b) in the national news paper c) in the official gazette of the appropriate govt. d) important magazines of the country. Q203. Where minimum wages are being fixed by notification method, persons likely to be affected will be given an opportunity to submit their proposals within a specified period which will be; Ans. a) not less than 15 days b) not less than one month c) not less than two months d) not less than three months Q204. The minimum wages which are finally notified in the official gazette will come into operation after the expiry of : Q205. Where minimum wages are to be fixed by the committee method under the minimum wages act 1948 the committee will be constituted by : Ans. a) The central government c) The appropriate government Q206. The number of employers and workers representatives in a committee constituted under the minimum wages act, 1948 shall be: Ans. a) not less than 5 and not more than 10. b) not less than 10 and not more than 20. Q207. A minimum wage fixed by an appropriate government under the minimum wages act, 1948 must be revised at least once in : Ans. a) every two years b) every three years c) Every five years d) every six years Q208. If due to some reasons the appropriate government has not been able to revise minimum rates of wages within a period of five years then in that conditions: Ans. a) the employer shall continue to pay the old minimum rate of wages fixed under the act. b) the employer may pay less than the minimum rates of wages fixed under the act. c) minimum wages will cease to apply after the expiry of the aforesaid time period. Q209. A worker who is being paid less than the minimum rates of wages, must present his application of claim within: Ans. a) 3 months for the date on which the minimum wages became payable. b) 6 months for the date on which the minimum wages became payable. c) one year for the date on which the minimum wages became payable. d) two years for the date on which the minimum wages became payable. Q210. Minimum wages can be fixed by the appropriate government under the minimum wages act, 1948: Ans. a) only for scheduled employments. b) only for non-scheduled employments. Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 Q211. The Payment of Bonus Act was enacted in: Q212. The concept of bonus under the payment of bonus act is : d) social security payment Q213. The minimum amount of bonus fixed under the payment of bonus act, 1965 is : Q214. The maximum bonus fixed under the payment of bonus act, 1956 is: Q215. The payment of bonus act, 1965 applies to: Ans. a) every factory and every other establishment in which twenty or more persons were employed on any day during an accounting year. c) shops and establishments d) hospitals and dispensaries. Q216. The payment of bonus act 1965 applies to every industrial establishment in which : Ans. a) 10 or more persons are employed b) 20 or more persons are employed c) 35 or more persons are employed d) 100 or more persons are employed Q217. According to the payment of bonus act, 1965, bonus is calculated on the basis of wages earned by a worker. c) atleast thirty working days in that year Q218. An employee shall be disqualified for receiving bonus under the payment of bonus act 1965 if : Ans. a) he is a member of a trade union b) he has not completed one year of continuous service c) he is not an efficient worker d) he has been dismissed from service for fraud or violent behavior. Q219. In which of the following situations an employee will be deprived from the right of receiving bonus from his employer, if he is dismissed from service for; b) riotous or violent behavior c) theft, misappropriation or sabotage of any property of the establishment. d) in all the above situations. Q220. Where the salary or wage of an employee, who is covered under this act, exceeds Rs.3500 per month, which of the following will be applicable: Ans. a) he will not be paid bonus. b) he will be paid bonus on the basis of his actual wage or salary c) he will be paid bonus but the bonus shall be calculated as if his salary or wage were Rs.3500 per month. Q221. An employee will not be covered under the payment of bonus act 1965, if his salary or wage per month exceeds: Q222. Wages or salary under the payment of bonus act, 1965 will include only: Ans. a) basic wages and dearness allowances. Q223. While calculating 8.33% as minimum bonus for those who have completed more than fifteen years of age under the payment of bonus act, the amount should not be less than: Q224. Under the factories act, 1948 the daily hours of work for children cannot be more than: Q225. The factories act, 1948 requires the appointment of a welfare officer in every factory employing: Ans. a) 500 or more workmen b) 400 or more workmen c) 300 or more workmen d) 250 or more workmen Q226. Under the factories act, 1948 no person can be employed in a factory unless he/she has completed: Q227. As per the factories act, 1948 one additional first aid box must be provided for every : Q228. Factories Act, 1948 is an example of : Ans. a) industrial relations legislation c) working conditions legislation Q229. What should be the strength of labour force in a factory for shelters, rest room and lunch room under the factories act, 1948? Q230. According to the factories act 1948 the minimum number of persons employed in a factory working without power must not be less than: Q231. According to the factories act, 1948 the employer must provide a canteen where atleast : Ans. a) 100 workers are employed b) 150 workers are employed c) 250 workers are employed d) 500 workers are employed Q232. The maximum period of spread-over for children under the factories act, 1948 : Q233. The factories act, 1948 does not make provision for workers regarding their : Q234. In which chapter of the factories act, 1948 the provision for drinking water is provided : Ans. a) the chapter dealing with “Health”. b) the chapter dealing with “Safety” c) the chapter dealing with “welfare” d) the chapter dealing with “Employment of young persons” Q235. Under no circumstances an employer shall employ a child in factory during : Ans. a) distribution of work among workers in a factory b) arrangements of shifts per day c) total hours of work inclusive of rest interval for worker per day. d) The period spent by the worker in the organisation as well as outside the organisation. Q237. Under the factories act, 1948 an ambulance room is to be provided in every factory employing Ans. a) 500 or more workers Q238. The welfare officer appointed under the factories act, 1948 are paid their salaries by: Ans. a) the respective employers c) the central government d) An autonomous corporation Q239. Under the factories act, 1948 a child is prohibited from employment if he is below: Ans. a) 18 years b) 16 years Q240. Which of the following is not a welfare amenity under the factories act, 1948: Ans. a) First aid b) Shelter and rest rooms c) washing facilities d) Co-operative society Q241. Which of the following is not a factory: Ans. a) a steel mill b) a shoe factory c) a cotton mill d) a restaurant Q242. No adult worker will be required to work in a factory for more than: Ans. a) 10 hours a day and 48 hours a week b) 8 hours a day and 48 hours a week c) 9 hours a day and 48 hours a week Q243. The spreadover for an adult worker in a normal situation in a factory should no be more than : Ans. a) 12 hours a day b) 10 ½ hours a day c) 9 hours a day d) none of the above Q244. With the permission of the chief inspector of factories the period of spread over in an exceptional situation may be extended upto: Ans. a) 15 hours a day b) 14 hours a day c) 12 hours a day d) 10 hours a day Q245. The total number of overtime hours shall not exceed: Ans. a) 20 hours in any quarter b) 30 hours in any quarter c) 40 hours in any quarter d) 50 hours in any quarter Q246. An employer will have to provide a crèche in a factory if : Ans. a) 30 married women are employed b) 20 eligible children of working mothers are there c) 30 women workers are ordinarily employed d) 50 women employees are employed. Q247. In a factory where, in the opinion of the state government, a risky or dangerous operation is carried on, the employer may be required to appoint a safety officer if the number of workers therein is atleast : Q248. In the factories act, 1948 the provision of constituting a canteen committee in a factory has been prescribed under the chapter of : Ans. a) health b) welfare c) hours of work d) safety Q249. After which of the following incidents in India, a separate chapter relating to the hazardour processes” was incorporated in 1987 under the factories act, 1948 : Ans. a) Railway Accident of Bombay b) Jharia Coal Mine Accident Q250. According to the factories act, 1948 which of the following does not make part of the definition of a factory : b) where a manufacturing process is carried on c) where ten persons with power or twenty persons without power are working. d) where productivity is very high. Q251. An adult is one who has completed his : Q252. A young person as defined under the factories act, 1948 is one : Ans. a) who has not completed his 21 years of age b) who is either a child or an adolescent c) who has not completed his 15th year of age Q253. A factory in existence before the commencement of the factories act, 1948 must provide to every worker employed therein atleast: Ans. a) 9.9 cubic meters of space b) 15 cubic meters of space c) 4.2 cubic meters of space d) 14.2 cubic meters of space Q254. Provision of cool drinking water will be made in those factories wherein atleast : Ans. a) 500 workers are employed b) 400 workers are employed c) 250 workers are employed d) 150 workers are employed Q255. No latrine or urinal in a factory should be situated near a place of drinking water within a radius of : Ans. a) 10 meters b) 8 meters Q256. Under the factories act, 1948 a worker in a public utility service will have to make an advance application for going on leave with wages which will be : Ans. a) two months advance notice b) 15 days advance notice c) one month advance notice d) 30 days advance notice. Q257. Leave with wages can not be accumulated by an adult worker in a factory for : Ans. a) more than ten days b) more than thirty days c) more than forty days d) more than fifteen days Q258. In case of children as per the factories act, 1948 leave with wages can be accumulated upto: Ans. a) 20 days b) 30 days Q259. To be entitled to “Leave with Wages under the factories act, 1948 the worker should have worked in the previous full calendar year atleast for : Ans. a) 30 days b) 100 days Q260. The factories act, 1948 applies : Ans. a) only to seasonal factories b) only to perennial factories c) both to seasonal and perennial factories Q261. Who among the following has been given vital powers with regard to inspection under the factories act, 1948 ? Ans. a) The labour commissioner b) The registrar of trade unions c) The chief inspector of factories Q262. The expenses incurred on obtaining a “Certificate of fitness” by a non-adult worker are to be paid. Ans. a) by the worker himself c) by the employer but recovered from worker’s wages. d) by the appropriate government Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 Q263. The workmen’s compensation act, 1923 came into force from: Q264. Which of the following risks of life is covered by the workmen’s compensation act, 1923? Ans. a) Rs.2400 per month d) There is no wage limit. Q265. Who among the following is exclusively concerned with the workmen compensation act, 1923 ? c) Workmen’s compensation commissioner d) Registrar of Trade Unions Q266. The impact of accidents under the workmen’s compensation act must remain atleast for: Ans. a) two days b) three days c) one week d) three months Q267. Which of the following risks of life is covered by the workmen’s compensation act, 1923? Ans. a) Sickness and Disablement c) Disablement, Death and Occupational Diseases d) Unemployment and Old-age Q268. A worker gets permanently totally disabled by an accident which was caused while he was on duty under the influence of alcohol : Ans. a) he will be paid compensation under the act. b) he will not be paid compensation under the act. d) consumption of alcohol deprives him from compensation Q269. A worker gets permanent partial disablement due to willful disregard of safety rules : Ans. a) he will not be entitled to compensation b) he will be entitled to compensation c) he will be entitled to reduced compensation Q270. Which of the following is included under the workmens compensation act, 1923? Ans. a) verneral diseases b) contagious diseases c) occupational diseases d) infectious diseases Q271. While calculating compensation for permanent total disablement or partial disablement how much percentage of his wages is multiplied by the relevant factor? Ans. a) 50 percent b) 60 percent c) 75 percent d) 100 percent Q272. The minimum amount of compensation in case of permanent total disablement has been fixed as: Ans. a) Rs.24,000 b) Rs.40,000 c) Rs.60,000 d) Rs.90,000 Q273. A person who gets temporary disablement due to accident arising out of and during the course of employment will be paid : Ans. a) 25% of his wages per month during the period of disability b) 50% of his wages per month during the period of disability c) 75% of his wages per month during the period of disability d) 100% of his wages per month during the period of disability Q274. Temporary disablement benefit will be paid to an injured workman under the workmen’s compensation act, 1923 for a maximum period of Ans. a) three months b) six months c) one year d) five years Q275. In case of death caused due to employment injury, how much percentage of a worker’s wages is multiplied by the relevant factor? Ans. a) 25 percent b) 50 percent c) 60 percent d) 150 percent Q276. What is the minimum amount of compensation fixed under the workmen’s compensation act, 1923 to be payable to a workman in case of death ? Ans. a) Rs.10,000 b) Rs.25,000 c) Rs.80,000 d) Rs.100,000 Q277. For calculating the amount of compensation under the workmen’s compensation act, 1923, the maximum monthly wages of a worker shall be deemed to be : Ans. a) Rs.2000 b) Rs.4000 c) Rs.2500 d) There is no maximum limit prescribed under the act. Q278. Compensation due under the workmen’s compensation act, 1923 must be paid within : Ans. a) 15 days from the date it fell due b) 7 days from the date it fell due c) one month form the date it fell due d) three month form the date it fell due Q279. The workmen’s compensation commissioner is appointed by: Ans. a) Central govt. only c) The appropriate governments Q280. Where the workmen’s compensation commissioner is of opinion that there was no justification for the delay in payment of compensation, he may direct the employer to pay, in addition to the amount of arrears and interests thereon, a further sum as penalty; Ans. a) not exceeding 25% of such amount b) not exceeding 50% of such amount c) not exceeding 75% of such amount Q281. The notice of claim for compensation must be served by the workman or his dependent within: Ans. a) 6 months from the date of the occurrence of the accident b) one year from the date of the occurrence of the accident c) two year from the date of the occurrence of the accident d) there is no time limit Q282. An employer in whose premises an accident occurs which results in death or serious bodily injury will be required to give a notice or send a report to the commissioner within : Ans. a) 7 days of the occurrence b) 15 days of the occurrence c) one month of the occurrence d) he is not required to send any report to the commissioner. Q283. In which of the following situations the worker will be deprived from compensation under the workmen’s compensation act, 1923 ? Ans. a) if the worker is a habitual late comer to the factory b) if he is an alcoholist c) if he has refused to submit himself for medical examination within three days of accident. d) if the worker was a patient of heart disease. Q284. In case of death of a workman due to employment injury, the employer is required to deposit the amount of compensation with the workmen’s compensation commissioner but he can make an advance to the dependants which shall not be more than: Ans. a) one months wages of the workman b) two months wages of the workman c) three months wages of the workman d) he can advance the entire amount of compensation Q285. An appeal against the decision of the workmen’s compensation commissioner can be filed: Ans. a) in any district court Q286. The workmen’s compensation act, 1923 will not be applicable if: Ans a) Minimum wages act, 1948 is applicable b) Payment of gratuity act, 1972 is applicable c) Maternity benefit act 1961 is applicable d) Employee’s state insurance act, 1948 is applicable Q287. The workmen’s compensation act, 1923 applies only to those workers who work in: Ans. a) perennial factories c) Occupations included in the schedule-II of the act. Q288. Under the workmen’s compensation act, 1923 the amount of funeral expenses should not be more than : Employers provident funds and miscellaneous provisions act, 1952 Q289. The present name of the employees provident funds act, 1952 is ; Ans. a) Employees provident funds act, 1952 b) Employees provident funds and family pension funds act, 1952 c) Employees provident funds and miscellaneous provisions act, 1952 d) Provident funds act, 1952. Q290. The employee’s provident funds and miscellaneous provisions act, 1952 applies to every establishment which is a factory engaged in any industry in which; Ans. a) ten or more persons are employed b) Twenty or more persons are employed c) Fifty or more persons are employed d) Hundred or more persons are employed Q291. The employers contributions under the employees provident fund and miscellaneous provisions act, 1952 shall be: Q292. The workers contributions under the employees provident funds and miscellaneous provisions act, 1952 will be : Ans. a) lower than the employers’ contribution b) Higher than the employers contribution c) Equal to the employers contribution Q293. If a worker desires to contribute more than 10% in his provident fund: Ans. a) he cannot be allowed to do so. b) he can be allowed to do so. c) the act is silent in this regard Q294. The 10% contribution under the employees provident funds and miscellaneous provisions act, 1952 will be of : b) basic wages and dearness allowance only c) Basic wages, dearness allowance and retaining allowance if any d) basic wages, dearness allowance, house rent allowance city compensatory allowances etc. Q295. If a worker desires to contribute more than 10% under the employees provident funds and miscellaneous provisions act 1952, then Ans. a) his employer shall be also under obligation to pay equal to the workers contribution. b) his employer shall not be under an obligation to pay any contribution over an above his contribution c) the act is silent in this regard Q296. Which of the following schemes is not covered under the employees provident funds and miscellaneous provisions act, 1952 : Ans. a) Contributory provident fund scheme b) Employees family pension scheme c) Public provident fund scheme d) Employees deposit – linked insurance scheme. Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 Q297. The first central legislation relating to maternity benefit was enacted in: Q298. The maternity benefit act, 1961 applies to : Ans. a) Factories, Mines, Plantation c) An establishment where persons are employed for the exhibition of equestrian or acrobatics. Q299. To which of the following the maternity benefit act, 1961 does not apply Ans. a) Factories, Mines, Plantation b) Industrial establishments wherein persons are employed for the exhibition of equestrian, acrobatic and other performance. c) Shops and establishments employing ten or more persons. d) Industrial establishments where E.S.I. Act, 1948 is in operation. Q300. No women shall be entitled to maternity benefit unless she has actually worked in that establishment for a period of not less than : Ans. a) 160 days b) 80 days Q301. A woman employee under the maternity benefit act, 1961 is entitled to maternity leave of : Ans. a) ten weeks pre-natal and ten weeks post-natal. b) 8 weeks pre-natal and 8 weeks post-natal. c) 6 weeks pre-natal and 6 weeks post-natal d) 3 weeks pre-natal and 3 weeks post-natal Q302. During the period of maternity leave a woman will be paid at the of : Ans. a) half of her average daily wages c) less than Rs. 10 per day Q303. The total period of maternity leave admissible to a woman employee under the maternity benefit act, 1961 is: Ans. a) 16 weeks b) 18 weeks Q304. A woman delivers a child and dies soon after delivery, leaving the child alive. Under the maternity benefit act 1961, she will be entitled to : Ans. a) no maternity benefit at all b) only six weeks maternity benefit upto the date of her death c) All twelve weeks of maternity benefit Q305. A woman employee has been granted twelve weeks maternity leave but she desires to work in the first six weeks of her maternity leave. Which one of the following is permissible under the act? Ans. a) she cannot be employed by her employer in the first six weeks b) she can be allowed to work in the first six weeks c) she can be allowed to work if she gives in writing her willingness d) the employer cannot employ her in any case. Q306. The maternity benefit act, 1961 provides that a woman will be granted, besides maternity leave a medical bonus which shall be : Ans. a) Rs. 150 b) Rs. 250 Q307. An employer may refuse to pay medical bonus to a woman worker who is under maternity benefit if : Ans. a) the woman has already availed maternity benefit earlier b) if she has more than three children c) if the employer provides pre-natal and post-natal care free of charge d) if the woman employee in her family has a medical practitioner as her relative. Q308. In case of miscarriage a woman employee under the maternity benefit act, 1961 is entitled to : Ans a) 12 weeks maternity leave b) 6 weeks maternity leave c) no maternity leave at all Q309. A woman suffering from illness arising out of pregnancy, delivery, pre-matured birth of child or mis-carriage shall be allowed to an extended maternity benefit of : Ans. a) 15 days b) one month c) three month d) six months Q310. A woman who returns to duty after delivering a child shall, in addition to interval for rest allowed to her, be allowed in the course of her daily work: Ans. a) one additional break of prescribed duration b) two additional breaks of prescribed duration c) three addition breaks of prescribed duration d) four addition breaks of prescribed duration Q311. The facility of additional breaks to the woman employee will continue to be provided until her child attains the age of : Ans. a) one year b) three years c) five years d) 15 months Q312. Can an employer terminate the services of a women who has gone under maternity leave under the maternity benefit act, 1961? Ans. a) the employer can terminate her services. b) the employer cannot discharge or dismiss her during the period a normal manner. c) the act is completely silent on this account Q313. According to the maternity benefit act, 1961 where a woman employee is guilty of any gross misconduct : Ans. a) the employer cannot dismiss or discharge her during the period of maternity leave. b) the employer may dismiss or discharge her c) the employer may dismiss or discharge her and even deprive her of the maternity benefit or medical bonus or both Q314. The right of a woman employee to receive maternity benefit will be forfeited if ; Ans. a) she has availed this benefit for more than three times. b) she is not of a good behaviour in the organisation c) the women has started working in another establishment during the period of her maternity leave Q315. Under which of the following schemes woman employee gets benefit without contribution: Ans. a) employees provident funds and miscellaneous provisions act, 1952 b) employees state insurance act, 1948 c) Maternity benefit act, 1961 Q316. The payable amount to the woman employee during maternity leave shall not be less than : b) the fixed minimum rate of wages by the govt. c) daily average rate of wages d) whichever is higher in above. Q317. Gratuity has been defined under the payment of gratuity act as: Ans. a) social security benefit d) it has not been defined at all Q318. Gratuity under the payment of gratuity act is paid to employees as: Ans. a) retrenchment benefit Q319. In which of the following the payment of gratuity act, 1972 is not applicable? b) plantation, port, railway company c) shops and establishments Q320. A shop has employed eight persons during the last three years will its employees according to the payment of gratuity act 1972: Ans. a) be entitled to gratuity b) not entitled to gratuity c) the act will not apply there Q321. There are ten persons employed in a shop and the payment of gratuity act, 1972 becomes applicable there. After the application of the act, three employees have left the shop. In such a situation which of the following will be applicable? Ans. a) this act will continue to be applicable there. b) as soon as the number of employees go below ten, the act will cease to apply. c) the act is silent about this type of situation. Q322. Gratuity shall be payable to an employee on the termination of his employment if he has rendered continuous service of not less than : Q323. According to the payment of gratuity act, 1972, continuous service of five years shall not be necessary if the termination of employment of an employee is due to : Ans. a) death or disablement Q324. The payment of gratuity act, 1972 says that gratuity in a perennial establishment will be paid at the rate of : Ans. a) one months wages for every completed year of service b) ten days wages for every completed year of service c) fifteen days wages for every completed year of service d) three months wages for every completed year of service. Q325. The minimum amount of gratuity prescribed under the payment of gratuity act, 1972 is : Ans. a) Rs. 10000 b) Rs. 25000 c) Rs. 50000 d) No minimum amount of gratuity has been fixed under the act. Q326. The maximum amount of gratuity fixed under the payment of gratuity act, 1972 is : Ans. a) Rs. 1 Lakh b) Likely to be increases to 3.5 lakh c) Rs. 5 Lakh d) None of the above. Q327. Which of the following is true in the context of the payment of gratuity act, 1972 ? Ans. a) the employer cannot reduce or withhold the gratuity of an employee b) the employer can withhold or reduce the gratuity of an employee in case his services have been terminated for riotous conduct or an act of violence. c) the employer can refuse to pay gratuity if the undertaking is running in loss. d) the employer can refuse to pay gratuity if the worker is member of a trade union. Q328. In seasonal factories gratuity will be paid at the rate of : Ans. a) 15 days wages for each season b) 7 days wages for each season c) 10 days wages for each season d) one month wages for each season Q329. According to the payment of gratuity act, 1972 an employee shall not be entitled to receive gratuity on the termination of his employment in case of : Ans. a) retirement b) resignation c) retrenchment d) superannuation Q330. According to the payment of gratuity act, 1972 an employee who has no family can declare as his nominee after completion of one year of service: Ans. a) his boss b) his friend c) his immediate neighbour d) any person Q331. According to the payment of gratuity act, 1972, who among the following can be declared as nominee by an employee after completion of one year of service: Ans. a) wife or wives b) son or sons c) daughter or daughters d) all the above Q332. The gratuity which becomes payable under the payment of gratuity act, 1972 must be paid within: Ans. a) 10 days from the date it becomes payable b) 15 days from the date it becomes payable c) 30 days from the date it becomes payable d) 3 months from the date it becomes payable Q333. A person has completed ten years and five months of service in an oraganisation. At the rate of 15 days wages for every completed year of service which of the following will be payable to the employee as gratuity: Ans. a) 165 days b) 150 days Q334. A person has worked for ten years and seven months in a perennial organisation covered under the payment of gratuity act, 1972. Which of the following will be paid to him as gratuity on the termination of his services? Ans. a) 150 days b) 165 days c) 159 days d) none of the above Q335. An employee has worked in an organisation for only three years and dies as a result of an accident. He does not fulfill five years of minimum service as eligibility condition for getting gratuity. Which one of the following will apply in his case? Ans. a) he will not be paid gratuity under this act. b) he will be paid gratuity c) the act is completely silent with regard to this type of situation Q336. An employee has been retrenched from an organisation where he has completed ten years of continuous service. Will that employee be entitled to receive gratuity under the payment of gratuity act, 1972? Ans. a) he will be entitled b) he will no be entitled c) there is no provision in this act for such type of situation Q337. An employee has tendered resignation after serving an organisation for ten years. Will that employee be entitled for gratuity under the payment of gratuity act 1972? Ans. a) yes he will be entitled b) he will not be entitled c) there is no provision under this act Q338. A worker has put in two years of service in an organisation in which he meets a serious accident and becomes totally disabled. Since he has not completed five years of service as an eligibility condition which one of the following will apply: Ans. a) he will be entitled to receive gratuity b) he will not be eligible to receive gratuity c) there is no provision under the act for such type of situation Q339. The payment of gratuity act, 1972 applies to every shop in which the number of persons employed is: Ans. a) not less than 100 Q340. A trade union’s certificate of registration is liable to be cancelled if it: Ans. a) commits an unfair labour practice. b) violates the provisions of the code of discipline c) fails to submit annual returns d) certificate is obtained by fraud means. Q341. According to the trade unions act, 1926 the minimum number of persons who can get a trade union registered is : Q342. Under the trade unions act, 1926 what is the minimum age required for a person to become an office bearer of a registered trade union? Ans. a) 15 years b) 21 years Q343. In which year the trade unions act in India was enacted? Q344. Under the trade unions act.,1926 what is the minimum age required for a person to become a member of a registered trade union. Ans. a) 14years b) 21 years Q345. The general funds of a trade union may not be spent on: Ans. a) payment of salaries and allowances of office-bearers b) the conduct of trade disputes on behalf of the trade union c) compensation to members for loss arising out of trade disputes d) the maintenance of any person who is a member of any legislative body. Q346. Under the trade unions act, 1926 the prescribed membership fee is : Ans. a) 0.25 paise or more b) 0.50 paise or more c) Rs. 1 or more d) Rs. 5 or more Q347. Every appropriate government shall appoint an officer who will look after the registration of trade unions under the trade union act, 1926 and who will be known as : Ans. a) commissioner of labour b) Workmen’s compensation commissioner c) Registrar of trade union Q348. An application for registration by a trade union shall become invalid if : Ans. a) 25% of the total number of persons who made the application have ceased to be members of the trade union. b) exceeding 50% of the total number of persons who made the application have ceased to be members of the trade union c) 75% and above of the total number of persons who made the application have ceased to be members of the trade union Q349. Outsiders can be associated with a registered union as its office bearers but their proportion should not be more than : c) 75% d) none of the above Q350. A person shall be disqualified to become a member of the executive or any other office bearer of a registered trade union if : Ans. a) he is not educated b) he is not an independent person c) he is not associated with the trade union for the last ten years d) he has been convicted by a court in India of any offence involving moral turpitude. Q351. A registered trade union may change its name with the consent of : Ans. a) one third of the total number of its member b) two third of the total number of its member c) one-half of the total number of its member Q352. Any two or more registered trade unions may become amalgamated as one union if : Ans. a) one fourth of the votes of members of each trade union are recorded and atleast 25% of the votes recorded are in the favour of the proposal. b) one half of the votes of members of each trade union are recorded and atleast 50% of the votes recorded are in the favour of the proposal c) one half of the votes of members of each trade union are recorded and atleast 60% of the votes recorded are in the favour of the proposal Q353. Every registered trade union shall send to the registrar every year : Ans. a) a quaterly return b) half yearly return c) annual return d) none of the above Q354. A certificate of registration of a trade union may be withdrawn or canelled by the registrar: Ans. a) if the certificate has been obtained by fraud means. b) the trade union has ceased to exist c) the union has willfully contravened any provision of the act Q355. In order to cancel the certificate of registration the registrar must give a written notice specifying the ground on which the certificate is being cancelled and it will be : Ans. a) two months previous notice in writing. b) three months previous notice in writing c) six months previous notice in writing d) no notice is required. Industrial employment (standing orders) act, 1946 Q356. The main objective of the industrial employment (standing orders) act,1946 is to promote rules to govern the: Ans. a) wages in the undertaking b) conduct of the employer c) conduct of the trade unions d) define conditions of employment Q357. The industrial employment act, 1946 applies to every industrial establishment wherein the number of employed workmen is atleast: Q358. The employers of all the industrial establishments where the industrial employment, act 1946 become applicable will be required to submit draft standing orders to the certifying officer within : Q359. the employer will submit to the certifying officer Ans. a) three copies of the draft standing orders b) five copies of the draft standing orders c) six copies of the draft standing orders Q360. on receipt of the draft standing orders the certifying officer shall forward a copy thereof to the : Ans. a) central government b) I.L.O c) trade union in the organization d) Indian labour conference Q361. the trade union or the workmen as the case may be will be required to return the draft standing orders with their objections or suggestions to the certifying officer within: Ans. a) one week from the receipt of the notice b) fifteen days from the receipt of the notice c) one month from the receipt of the notice d) three months from the receipt of the notice Q362. after receiving suggestions or objections from the trade union or the workmen, the certifying officer shall there upon certify the draft standing orders after making any modifications therein and shall send copies of the certified standing orders to the employer and the trade union within: Ans. a) three days b) seven days c) fifteen days d) one month Q363. The certified standing orders shall unless an appeal is preferred come into operation on the expiry of : Ans. a) fifteen days from the date on which authenticated copies thereof are sent. b) thirty days from the date on which authenticated copies thereof are sent. c) forty five days from the date on which authenticated copies thereof are sent. d) three months from the date on which authenticated copies thereof are sent. Q364. The text of the standing orders as finally certified under the industrial employment act, 1946 shall be prominently posted by the employer at or near the entrance in : Ans. a) Hindi and regional languages b) French and German languages c) English and the language understood by the majority of his workmen d) Urdu and Punjabi language Q365. The standing orders finally certified under the industrial employment act, 1946 shall not be liable to modification until the expiry of: Ans. a) three months b) six months c) nine months d) one year Q366. The subsistence allowance paid to workmen during the period of suspension, pending investigation shall be at the rate of : Ans. a) 50% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension. b) 25% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension c) 75% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension d) 100% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension Q367. Any employer workman, trade union who is aggrieved by the order of the certifying officer may appeal to the appellate authority : Ans. a) within thirty days from the date on which the copies are sent. b) within forty five days from the date on which the copies are sent c) within fifteen days from the date on which the copies are sent d) within six month from the date on which the copies are sent Q368. The purchasing power of money wage is called: Ans. a) fair wage b) real wage c) living wages d) minimum wages Q369. Dearness allowance is paid to employees: Ans. a) as a reward for working under unsafe conditions b) as an extra payment for overtime c) to neutralize the impact of rising prices Q370. Which of the following factors does not influence wages and salary administration/ Ans. a) government regulation c) submission of income tax returns Ans. a) the living wage b) the fair wage c) the purchasing power of the wage d) the minimum wage Q372. Which one of the following acts deals with the fixation of wages of employees in the unorganized sector? Ans. a) equal remuneration act b) minimum wages act c) industrial disputes act d) payment of wages act Q373. The concept of need based minimum wage was suggested by: Ans. a) Indian labour conference b) fair wages committee c) Labour investigation committee d) royal commission on labour Q374. In perfect competition, wages will be determined in the labour market: Ans. a) by the government b) according to the desire of working class c) according to demand and supply d) none of the above Q375. The wage which represents a standard of living which provides no merely for a bare physical subsistence but for the maintenance of health and decency, a measure of frugal comfort and some insurance against the more important misfortunes is called: Ans. a) fair wage b) need based minimum wages c) minimum wages d) living wage Q376. The concepts of minimum wage, fair wage and living wages were used by? Ans. a) Indian labour conference b) standing labour committee c) committee on fair wage d) wage board Q377. Which of the following theories is known as iron law theory of wages ? Ans. a) subsistence theory b) wage fund theory c) marginal productivity theory d) collective bargaining theory Q378. Which theory of wages assumes that there is an upper limit above which employers will not raise wages and there is a lower limit below which workers will not accept wages? Ans. a) Marginal productivity theory b) wage fund theory c) residual claimant theory d) collective bargaining theory Q379. The first wage board in India was constituted in the year : Q380. For which of the following industries in India the first wage board was constituted? Ans. a) steel industry b) ports and docks c) cotton textiles d) engineering Q381. Personnel management is concerned with the management of : Ans. a) population of a nation b) manual workers c) government servants d) employees working in organisation Q382. Who is the father of modern personnel management? Ans. a) Henry Fayol b) Robert Owen c) F.W.Taylor d) none of the above Q383. Personnel management means: Ans. a) Disciplining people at work b) Managing people at work c) providing welfare facilities to employee d) solving the problems of the employees Q384. The operative functions of personnel management include: Ans. a) Procurement and development b) Compensation and integration c) maintenance d) all the above Q385. The essential purpose of personnel policy is to : Ans. a) guide the activities of trade unions b) help workers in solving their problems c) help the employees in preventing a lockout d) guide the actions of the employer about employees. Q386. The main function of personnel officer is to: Ans. a) promote employees efficiency and development b) promote the safety of workers c) promote the health of workers d) promote cleanliness in the work place. Q387. Personnel management is primarily concerned with: Ans. a) promotion of good relations and undertaking among people b) effective utilization of manpower c) promotion of welfare measures for employees d) solving individual problems of employees Q388.The history of personnel management started from; Ans. a) Great Britain b) U.S.A Q389. The history of personnel management can be traced back: Ans. a) after the first world war b) After the second world war c) after 1960’s d) after 1980’s Human Resource Development Q390. Which of the following is not an objective of HRD? Ans. a) to develop occupational capabilities of workers b) to develop intellectual, psychological, social and cultural aspect. c) to develop higher level of achievement, motivation, and self management skills. d) to promote a happy family life. Q391. Which of the following is true with regard to HRD? Ans. a) HRD can be used only in industry b) HRD can be used any where or every where people are at work c) it can be used only in business organisations Q392. Which one of the following statements is correct? Ans. a) Personnel management and HRD are the same thing b) HRD is the modern name of personnel management c) Personnel management refers to management of human beings where as HRD refers to development of potentialities of manpower. d) HRD aims to promote more productivity in organisations Q393. The full form of SCOPE is Ans. a) Standing committee of Public Enterprises b) State council of Public Education c) Standing committee on production and efficiency d) Standing conference of private enterprises Q394. Reservation of jobs for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in India is applicable for jobs in: Ans. a) Central government only b) State government only c) private sector only d) Central and state governments and public sector. Q395. Which of the following is an objective of human resource management? Ans. a) productivity b) quality of work-life c) organizational change d) all the above Q396. Human resource management primarily aims at: Ans. a) Improving quality of goods and services b) Adopting appropriate technology to promote operational efficiency c) Developing and motivating employees d) Reducing costs and increasing profits Q397. Job analysis is used for: Ans. a) Promotion b) Termination c) Grievance Handling d) Discipline Q398. Job description implies: Ans. a) Identification of the qualities required in the job holder. b) Performing the job methodically c) Laying down systematically the duties and responsibilities of the job d) Determination of the performance standards of the jobs Q399. Which of the by-products of job-analysis is considered as a “Standard of personnel”? Ans. a) Job specification b) Job description c) Job design d) Job evaluation Q400. Job description means : Ans. a) to find out the money value of a job b) to compare job with other jobs in the organisation c) summary of the facts disclosed by job analysis in a systematic order Q401. Job analysis is used in: Ans. a) recruitment, placement and guidance b) determining content and needs of training c) transfer and promotion Q402. job specification means: Ans. a) it specifies how to do a job b) it tells the money value of a job c) it specifies the skill, qualification, training and experience required for the job. Q403. With more and more adoption of technology: Ans. a) use of job analysis will increase b) use of job analysis will decrease c) it will not affect the use of job analysis Q404. The method of job analysis is mainly used in: Ans. a) Universities and Colleges c) Government Departments d) Industrial Organisations Q405. Which one of the following helps in placing a proper person to a proper job? Q406. In order to make a job interesting and enjoying which one of the following should be used ? Q407. The main objective of manpower planning is : Ans. a) Assessing the supply of manpower in the organisation b) Forecasting and meeting future manpower needs c) Ensuring effective utilization of manpower d) Restricting the entry of manpower in certain employments in an organisation Q408. The process which is concerned with having right number of people, right kind of people, at the right place and right time is known as: Ans. a) Manpower Planning d) Human Resources Development Q409. The primary objective of manpower planning in an industrial organisation is : Ans. a) to ensure increased commitment of manpower b) to ensure increased worker productivity c) to ensure the supply of manpower for future expansion d) to ensure the supply of right number and the right type of personnel at any point of time. Q410. Human resource planning is the process which ? Ans. a) aims at maximizing output. b) seeks to create a conducive climate c) ensures availability of right number and kind of people at any given point of time d) evolves personnel policies and practices to motivate its employees. Q411. The method which translates the organisations objectives and plans the number of workers needed to meet those objectives is called: Ans. a) Perspective planning b) Advance planning c) Manpower planning d) none of the above Q412. Which of the following legislations directly or indirectly is concerned with the process of manpower planning ? Ans. a) Employees state insurance act, 1948 b) Trade unions act, 1926 c) Industrial disputes act, 1947 d) payment of wages act, 1936 Q413. Employment exchange is an agency which: Ans. a) creates jobs b) selects people for jobs c) assists employers and job seekers d) assists educational institutions Q414. To attract the best qualified applicants for many different jobs in a company, recruitment should rely upon: Ans. a) only internal sources b) only external sources c) both external and internal sources d) only local sources Q415. The process of familiarizing the new employees to the job and work environment is called : Ans. a) placement b) induction Q416. While selecting a person for a job, which one of the following should be the basis? Ans. a) attitude towards work b) job skills and job knowledge c) job experience d) all the above Q417. Recruitment from outside brings: Ans. a) efficient persons b) latest knowledge into the organisation c) new blood into the organization d) all the above Q418. Interview as a method is used in : Ans a) Transfer b) Termination c) Recruitment d) Selection Q419. Which of the following statements is False? Ans. a) Recruitment is a positive process b) Selection follows recruitment c) Recruitment is a part of manpower planning d) Selection is a positive process Q420. A company receives 605 applications in response to an advertisement in a newspaper inviting applications for a particular post. How the situation could be described? Ans. a) Placement has taken place b) Induction has taken place c) Selection has taken place d) Recruitment has taken place Q421. Recruitment refers to : Ans. a) Selection of candidates b) encouraging candidates to apply for jobs through advertisement and other methods c) selection is said to have taken place d) fixation of salary for new employee. Q422. Selection process essentially involves ; Ans. a) notifying vacancies to employment exchange and conducting interviews. b) matching the abilities of persons with the demands of the job c) locating sources of supply and encouraging persons to apply for jobs. Q423. Which of the following sources of recruitment is considered as an inside source ? Ans. a) Employment exchange b) Private employment agencies c) trade union of the organisation d) schools and colleges Q424. Which one of the following legislations can be said to be associated with the process of recruitment? Ans. a) Employment exchanges (Compulsory Notification of vacancies) Act, 1959. b) Trade unions act, 1926 c) Minimum wages act, 1948 d) Payment of wages act, 1936 Q425. The use of various psychological tests like aptitude test, attitude test, intelligent test etc. are used in the process of Ans. a) Recruitment b) Selection c) Placement d) Induction Q426. The term ‘Sons of the soil’ is associated with: Ans. a) Dismissal and discharge b) Promotion c) Recruitment d) Performance Appraisal Q427. Which of the following is not included under the sources of manpower? Ans. a) Employment exchange b) Colleges and schools c) Training institutes d) National Defence Academy Q428. Which of the following is not an internal source of manpower? Ans. a) sons and daughter of the present employees b) Promotion c) Re-employment of retrenched hands d) Employment of ex-army personnel Q429. Which of the following can not be regarded as an external source of manpower? Ans. a) employment exchanges b) Schools, colleges and universities c) Training institutes d) Apprentices getting training in the organisation. Q430. Which one of the following is not an objective of training? Ans. a) Updating. b) Inducting. c) Competency development. d) Motivation. Q431. The best method of learning is to allow an employee: Ans. a) Learn in a class room. b) Learn from Co-workers. c) Learn by trial and error method. d) Learn on the job through an instructor. Q432. Sensitivity training is provided to improve the manager’s: Ans. a) Human relations skill. b) Problem solving skill c) Time management skill. d) Technical skill. Q433. Which of the following programmes can be termed as’ earning while learning’? Ans. a) Apprenticeship training. b) Executive training. c) Supervisory training. d) Workers Education Programme. Q434. The best method to send an employee for a training programme is: Ans. a) As per recommendations of the supervisor. b) As per the request of the union. c) By assessing whether the needs of the employee meet with the training programme. d) At the discretion of the management. Q435. Apprentices receiving training in an organisation are: Ans. a) Full-fledged employees of the organisation b) Part-time employees of the organisation c) not considered as employees of the organisation at all Q436. When training is imparted to employees to generate more confidence among them, it is called : Ans. a) Rank and file training b) Versatile training c) Assertiveness training d) Executive training Q437. Case studies are used to describe and provide: Ans. a) information about the past records of the employee b) information about the employee from references given by them c) all facts about a particular situation Q438. Cold-storage training refers to ; Ans. a) training provided to employees of cold storage b) training relating to cold-storage c) training of employees for jobs that will be created in the future d) training to employees working in ice-factories or ice-cream factories. Q439. The term “Kaizen” which was developed in Japan means: Ans. a) workers are lazy by nature b) workers should be put to hard work c) workers job should give them scope to use all their knowledge imagination and intelligence in transforming their ideas into reality Q440. “Buzz session” which is used as a technique in training aims to : Ans. a) make workers versatile c) to remedy those trainees who sit through a conference but do not talk. Q441. Which of the following is the philosophy of “Kaizen” Ans. a) controlling workers c) continually improve workers performance Q442. The term “Kanban” was originated in : Ans. a) Great Britain b) U.S.A Q443. The term “Kanban” refers to : Ans. a) employing adequate manpower b) proper promotion policy c) an ideal state in which production quantities are equal to delivery quantities. Q445. In which of the following legislations there is provision of Grievance Settlement Authority? Ans. a) Factories Act, 1948. b) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) act, 1946. c) Industrial Dispute Act, 1947. d) Trade Unions Act, 1926. Q446. If grievances of employees are not properly redressed, it may result in: Ans. a) Better Quality Control Deptt. c) A higher rate of absenteeism and Labour turnover. d) Promote collective bargaining. Q447. Which of the following situations could you consider to be an ideal one for grievance settlement? Ans. a) the employees should have freedom to enter the room of General Manager any time with their grievances. b) Grievances should be immediately taken to the Grievance Committee. c) Grievances should be sent immediately for Voluntary Arbitration soon after they arise. d) Grievance should first be reported to the immediate supervisor, then the Department Head, then The General Manager and lastly to Arbitration. Q448. Which of the following grievances can be said to be an example of real grievances? Ans. a) A senior most worker is not getting promotion although there are vacancies and the only criterion for promotion is seniority. b) A senior most worker is not being promoted although there are vacancies and the sole criterion for promotion is merit. c) A senior most worker is not getting promotion although there are vacancies and the criterion for promotion is seniority-cum-efficiency. Q449. Under the Modal Grievance Procedure in India an aggrieved worker: Ans. a) Shall present his grievance in person. b) His grievance may be presented by a trade union leader. c) He can hire a lawyer to present his grievance. Wage and Salary administration Q450. Job Evaluation is a method associated with: Ans. a) Promotion of employees b) Dismissal of the employees. c) Transferring employees from one job to another. d) Wage and Salary administration. Q451. A technique used to establish the relative worth of jobs in a job hierarchy is: Ans. a) Job requirement. b) Jon evolution. c) Job description d) Job enlargement. Q452. Incentives are used for motivating employees: Ans. a) For better performance. b) For not committing unfair labour practice. c) For not disobeying the orders of the management. d) None of these. Q453. Job evaluation is associated with: Ans. a) Laying down standards of a job. b) Determining productivity norms of workers. c) Evaluation the performance of workers’ job. d) Determining the wroth of a job in terms of wages. Q454. Job evaluation refers to: Ans. a) Determining the effectiveness with which job is performed. b) Determining the wroth of a job in relation to other jobs in terms of money. c) Determining the duties and responsibilities of a job. d) Determining the human qualities required to do a job efficiently. Q455. Skilled efficient and meritorious workers will prefer: Ans. a) time rate system b) piece rate system c) guaranteed wage d) none of the above Q456. Wage is a payment for : Ans. a) shorter period b) longer period c) both longer and shorter period d) none of the above Q457. Salary is a payment for : Ans. a) shorter period of work b) Longer period of work c) both shorter and longer period of work d) none of the above Q458. Persons working in coal mines, shoe factories, beedi industries etc. which of the following systems will be more appropriate? Ans. a) time rate system b) Piece rate system c) both “a” and “b” d) none of the above Q459. Incentives may be used to promote: Ans. a) quantity of production b) quality of production c) Both “a” and “b” d) none of the above Q460. Which of the following allowances is based on the movement of prices of consumer goods? Ans. a) house rent allowance b) city compensatory allowance c) Dearness allowance d) medical allowance Q461. Which of the following organisations in India has been given the responsibility to study consumers price index in the country? Ans. a) Employees state insurance corporation b) unit trust of India c) planning commission d) Labour bureau, Simla Q462. The first stage of communication process is : Ans. a) Encoding b) Reception c) Ideation d) Transmission Q463. The process of effective communication involves : Ans. a) Passing messages from superiors to subordinates b) passing messages from subordinates to superiors c) passing messages from superiors to subordinates, subordinates to superiors among peers. d) passing messages in all directions at all levels Q464. ‘Grapevine’ refers to: Ans. a) Formal communication system b) informal communication system c) serving grape juice to the employees free of cost during working hours. Q465. Point out incorrect response. Horizontal communication in an organisation is discouraged for reasons : Ans. a) Too many messages flowing in all directions would lead to anarchy b) because of too much jobs specialization departments have little in common to share with other departments. c) departments generally do not like to share information with other departments because of rivalry. d) departments do not like to compete with others. Q466. Communication in personnel management means : Ans. a) transport of person from one place to another b) transportation of goods and commodities from one place to another c) Inter-change of information, ideas, and thoughts d) sale of goods and commodities Q467. Downward communications are used principally to : Ans. a) order b) instruct c) inform and influence d) all the above Q468. Which of the following are the purposes of upward communication in industry? Ans. a) report b) request, suggest c) protest, inform and influence d) all the above Q469. Which of the following is the purpose of horizontal communication? Ans. a) to inform b) to co-ordinate c) To inform and co-ordinate d) none of the above Q470. ‘Grapevine’ as a technique in communication means: Ans. a) distributing grapes to employees b) Spreading of news or gossip from one person to another c) Spreading a secret news Q471. Which of the following is not a pre-requisite of communication? Ans. a) to transmit an idea b) Presence of sender and the receiver c) a language understandable to both d) The idea must be implemented Q472. The labour leader who was awarded the noble prize was: Ans. a) Gorbachev b) Lech Walesa c) G.Ramanujan d) None of the above Q473. During whose prime minister ship the human resource development ministry was established in India ? Ans. a) P.V.Narshimha Rao b) Rajiv Gandhi c) Indira Gandhi d) V.P.Singh Q474. Exit policy refers to : Ans. a) the interview conducted and courtesies extended to an employee at the time of quitting the company b) The manner in which the sick units are wound up and the measures to be taken to safeguard the interests of workers affected in the process c) the closure of the company and the compensation paid to the workers thereupon d) termination of services of those employees participating in illegal strikes Q475. The appointment of labour officers was first recommended by : Ans. a) Royal commission on labour b) National commission on labour c) Shiva Rao committee d) standing labour committee Q476. Industrial revolution first originated in : Ans. a) U.S.A b) West Germany Q477. The first industrial policy resolution in India came into existence in : Q478. ‘Golden Handshake’ refers to : Ans. a) Shaking hands with a new employee on his joining the organisation b) Voluntary retirement scheme c) Termination of the employee Q479. “Labour Turnover” refers to : Ans. a) Movement of workforce into and out of an organisation b) the retirement of old employees c) retrenchment of excess staff d) termination of employees on medical grounds Q480. How many Indian institutes of management are there in our country? Q481. In which year the bonded labour system (abolition) act, was enacted? Q482. In which year “The employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act was enacted? |
Which of the following methods has not been given a statutory form in India *?
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